Possibly stupid question

I've been wondering this for a while... In formula one, having the tyres spin up is always a bad thing, but in Moto GP, there seems to be particular corners where (almost?) everyone spins the rear tyre through the corner. I have two questions:Why does this not cause excessive tyre wear?Why doesn't the spinning tyre cause a loss of traction resulting in a low side?I know if I had my bike even remotely leaned over and I span up the rear tyre, I'd be on the floor immediately (I know, I know, I'm a shit rider)
Submitted May 11, 2018 at 10:23AM by falafelburger https://www.reddit.com/r/motogp/comments/8imeo0/possibly_stupid_question/?utm_source=ifttt